A 72-year-old man presents to primary care for a sick visit, with the chief complaint of a one day history of fever, productive cough with yellow sputum and increasing shortness of breath. His vital signs are as follows, temp 99.8 °F (37.6 °C) , BP 140/85, heart rate 98 beats per minute, and respiratory rate 22 at rest period O2 saturation is 94% on room air. He has a history hypertension and type 2 diabetes, at guideline-based goals. He is a former smoker, quitting about 35 years ago with approximately a 25-pack year history. On physical exam, he has crackles in his right lower lung fields, no wheezing, and can speak in complete sentences. He answers questions appropriately, has moist mucous membranes, and reports voiding approximately 1 hour ago. He denies GI distress but states his appetite’s not what it usually is. He lives in a single-story home with his spouse and adult child, both of whom are with him for today's visit. His laboratory results include a mild leukocytosis and renal function is within normal limits. There is no evidence of anemia, and chest X-ray confirms a right lower lobe infiltrate consisted with pneumonia. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment location for this patient?  A. Intensive care unitB. At home with careful follow upC. Inpatient medical wardD. Long-term care facility ---YouTube: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4tM6zLePTkM&list=PLf0PFEPBXfq592b5zCthlxSNIEM-H-EtD&index=75Visit fhea.com to learn more!

Ver todos los episodios