A 60-year-old male with documented ASCVD, obesity with BMI of 34, and type 2 diabetes presents for care. The patient reports he's currently feeling well without episodes of hypoglycemia. Current laboratory assessment includes the following. A1C is 8.6 % and his estimated GFR is at 62. Current medications include metformin at optimized dose and a sulfonyl urea.Which of the following represents the nurse practitioner's next best action?A. continue on current therapy and arrange for a three month follow upB. discontinue the metformin and add a DPP4 inhibitorC. add a GLP-1 inhibitor and discontinue the sulfonyl ureaD. add basal insulin and titrate to fasting glycemic goals---YouTube: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8ybH1qcskq8&list=PLf0PFEPBXfq592b5zCthlxSNIEM-H-EtD&index=124Visit fhea.com to learn more!

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