A 28 year old assigned male at birth presents with the chief complaint of a "new problem in my private parts” He states he feels well otherwise. Which of the following would be most consistent with the clinical presentation of primary syphilis?A. A three day history of purulent penile discharge with dysuria.B. A one week history of a painless genital ulcer on the penile shaft.C. A 5 day history of painful vesicular lesions over the penile glands, with some lesions now crusting over.D. A one week history of N void dysuria without penile discharge.---YouTube: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Jp-dk0BZ37o&list=PLf0PFEPBXfq592b5zCthlxSNIEM-H-EtD&index=116Visit fhea.com to learn more!

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