Saundra is a 72-year-old with hypertension who is on an appropriate dose of an ACE inhibitor with adherence. Today’s BP= 152/96 and is without HTN-related complaint.  Physical exam is unremarkable.She has a history of well-controlled asthma and is using ICS/LABA therapy.  Due to osteoarthritis, she reports, “I get up slowly. Sometimes I do not get the bathroom on time and I lose my urine control.” Which of the following represents the next best step in Saundra’s HTN therapy? A.Advise that her BP is in an acceptable rangeB. Thiazide diuretic therapy should be initiatedC. Add a CCB to her current therapyD. A beta blocker represents the optimal additional therapy---YouTube: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-1Xaag9qsrQ&list=PLf0PFEPBXfq592b5zCthlxSNIEM-H-EtD&index=4Visit fhea.com to learn more!

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