How does a potentially missing word in the OT effect our ability to trust the Bible, if the Bible may have been tampered with?



If the Gospel does not need any works to be completed, and Abraham was declared righteous by faith, why does James 2:21 say that Abraham was "justified by works"?



How can someone be saved if they've never heard of Jesus?



With Carl's point on Gal 3:14, did Paul not also say in Romans that salvation was first for the Jews, then for the Gentiles?



If the Jews could not receive the Spirit until the Gentiles received the blessing, how did those in the OT respond in faith without the spirit? (eg Abraham etc.)



Does the plan that all people would be justified by faith mean the idea of an "old and new" covenant is unhelpful/not a thing?
 

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