Josh is a well 16-year-old male who presents with a reporting a 4-day history of moderate left-sided otalgia with intermittent fever.  Clinical assessment is consistent with acute otitis media (AOM).  No drug allergy or recent (within the past month) antimicrobial use is reported.  Which of the following represents the most appropriate first-line antimicrobial therapy?A. Oral moxifloxacinB. Oral amoxicillin C. Oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazoleD. Oral azithromycin---YouTube: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=MEtQfkXgZXo&list=PLf0PFEPBXfq592b5zCthlxSNIEM-H-EtD&index=3Visit fhea.com to learn more!

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